one that he felt compassion, but it is difficult to see why they should have made the opposite change. If the original text referred to Jesus’ anger, this would also explain why Matthew and Luke omit the reference to Jesus’ emotion altogether. But if ‘moved with anger’ represents the original reading, why did Mark consider it appropriate to attribute anger to Jesus? Did he understand the anger to be directed against the leper, and if so, why? One suggestion is that Mark supposes Jesus to be angry